HAP RENAL HARD flashcards

All 20 cards

1. Card 1

   Which statement best describes the main role of the kidneys? A. Regulate body temperature B. Produce digestive enzymes C. Maintain fluid volume and composition of the body D. Store urine

   C. Maintain fluid volume and composition of the body. The kidneys are major regulators of the internal environment, playing a vital role in maintaining fluid volume and composition in the body.

2. Card 2

   Approximately what percentage of cardiac output goes to the kidneys? A. 5% B. 10% C. 25% D. 50%

   C. 25%. The renal arteries, directly linked to the aorta, supply the kidneys with blood, accounting for 25% of cardiac output.

3. Card 3

   The functional unit of the kidney is the: A. Neuron B. Nephron C. Lobule D. Corpuscle

   B. Nephron. The kidneys are composed of nephrons, which are the functional units responsible for filtering blood, performing selective reabsorption, and excreting waste products.

4. Card 4

   What process involves water and small molecules moving out of the glomerulus under pressure? A. Tubular secretion B. Tubular reabsorption C. Active Transport D. Glomerular filtration

   D. Glomerular filtration. Blood enters the glomerulus under pressure, forcing part of the blood plasma, including water and small molecules, through the glomerular membrane.

5. Card 5

   The descending limb of the Loop of Henle is: A. Permeable to solutes but not water B. Permeable to water but relatively impermeable to solutes C. Impermeable to both solutes and water D. Freely permeable to proteins

   B. Permeable to water but relatively impermeable to solutes. This characteristic is crucial for the concentration of urine as water leaves the tubule while solutes are largely retained.

6. Card 6

   What feature allows the bladder to expand when filling? A. Elastic cartilage B. Transitional epithelium and rugae C. Smooth muscle only D. Skeletal muscle fibres

   B. Transitional epithelium and rugae. The bladder is lined with a mucous membrane of transitional epithelium and, when empty, has numerous folds called rugae, which allow for significant expansion.

7. Card 7

   Which of the following is NOT a layer of the glomerular filtration barrier? A. Fenestrated capillary endothelium B. Basement membrane C. Podocyte slit pores D. Renal fascia

   D. Renal fascia. The renal fascia is an external layer of the kidney, while the fenestrated capillary endothelium, basement membrane, and podocyte slit pores constitute the glomerular filtration barrier.

8. Card 8

   Which substance is typically blocked from passing through the glomerular filtration barrier? A. Glucose B. Urea C. Large proteins (e.g., albumin) D. Sodium

   C. Large proteins (e.g., albumin). The glomerular filtration barrier is designed to block large proteins and blood cells, while allowing water, glucose, amino acids, and various ions to pass through.

9. Card 9

   The Bowman's capsule is located at the top of each nephron, specifically in which part of the kidney? A. Renal medulla B. Renal pelvis C. Renal cortex D. Ureter

   C. Renal cortex. The Bowman's capsule, containing the glomerulus, is situated in the cortex at the top of each nephron.

10. Card 10

    What is the primary purpose of tubular secretion in the kidneys? A. To conserve useful substances like glucose and amino acids B. To move substances from the blood into the kidney tubule for elimination C. To concentrate urine by reabsorbing water D. To filter blood cells and large proteins from plasma

    B. To move substances from the blood into the kidney tubule for elimination. Tubular secretion actively removes unwanted materials, such as hydrogen ions, potassium ions, drugs, and toxins, from the blood into the filtrate.

11. Card 11

    Which of these is a characteristic of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)? A. It is impermeable to water. B. It is lined with simple cuboidal cells with a larger lumen than the DCT. C. It is covered with densely packed microvilli. D. Its primary function is the concentration of urine.

    C. It is covered with densely packed microvilli. The PCT is characterized by densely packed microvilli, which increase its surface area for efficient reabsorption of salt, water, and glucose.

12. Card 12

    In adults, when the bladder contains 200-250 ml of urine, what happens? A. The external sphincter immediately relaxes. B. Stretch receptors send signals to the brain, sensing fullness. C. Micturition is uncontrollable. D. The internal sphincter contracts.

    B. Stretch receptors send signals to the brain, sensing fullness. When the bladder reaches this volume, stretch receptors are activated, signaling the brain about the bladder's fullness, leading to the sensation of needing to urinate.

13. Card 13

    Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of normal urine? A. Specific color B. Distinct smell C. Extreme alkalinity D. Certain density

    C. Extreme alkalinity. Normal urine has a specific acidity (pH), color, smell, and density, but extreme alkalinity is not a typical characteristic and could indicate a disorder.

14. Card 14

    Which region of the male urethra passes through the prostate gland? A. Spongy portion B. Membranous portion C. Prostatic region D. Penile region

    C. Prostatic region. The male urethra is divided into three portions: prostatic (through the prostate gland), membranous (through the pelvic diaphragm), and penile/spongy (extends the length of the penis).

15. Card 15

    In children, UTI is most common in males during the first three months of life due to: A. Poor hygiene practices B. Congenital abnormalities C. A weaker immune system compared to females D. Dietary factors

    B. Congenital abnormalities. In children, UTI is often associated with renal tract abnormalities, and is most common in males in the first three months of life as a result of congenital abnormalities.

16. Card 16

    What is asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women, and what is its potential risk if untreated? A. It is a symptomatic UTI with no risk of complications. B. It is persistent colonization of the urinary tract without urinary symptoms, increasing the risk of preterm birth and pyelonephritis. C. It is a viral infection that resolves spontaneously. D. It is a rare condition with no significant maternal or fetal impact.

    B. It is persistent colonization of the urinary tract without urinary symptoms, increasing the risk of preterm birth and pyelonephritis. Asymptomatic bacteriuria, if untreated, carries an increased risk of preterm birth and pyelonephritis, affecting both maternal and fetal outcomes.

17. Card 17

    A urine dipstick test detects nitrites or leukocyte esterase. What might this indicate? A. Liver damage B. Diabetes C. A urinary tract infection D. Kidney stones

    C. A urinary tract infection. The presence of nitrites or leukocyte esterase, a product of white blood cells, in urine as detected by a dipstick, often indicates a urinary tract infection.

18. Card 18

    What is a disadvantage of using urine dipsticks compared to laboratory analysis? A. They are expensive. B. They are difficult to interpret. C. They are not very accurate and are qualitative, not quantitative. D. They require several days for results.

    C. They are not very accurate and are qualitative, not quantitative. While convenient and quick, dipsticks are less accurate than laboratory methods and provide qualitative rather than precise quantitative results.

19. Card 19

    What is the purpose of sending a Mid Stream Urine (MSU) or Catheter Stream Urine (CSU) to the lab for MC&S in patients with UTI symptoms? A. To confirm the presence of protein and glucose. B. To identify any pathogenic organism and determine its sensitivities to antimicrobials. C. To measure the concentration and pH of the urine. D. To check for the presence of blood cells only.

    B. To identify any pathogenic organism and determine its sensitivities to antimicrobials. MC&S (Microscopy, Culture, and Sensitivity) enables precise identification of the causative pathogen and informs appropriate antibiotic treatment based on sensitivity testing.

20. Card 20

    What is the Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC)? A. The highest concentration of an antimicrobial that promotes bacterial growth. B. The lowest concentration of an antimicrobial that inhibits the growth of a bacteria in vitro. C. The concentration of an antimicrobial required to kill all bacteria. D. The standard dosage of an antibiotic for a specific infection.

    B. The lowest concentration of an antimicrobial that inhibits the growth of a bacteria in vitro. MIC is a critical measure used to determine the effectiveness of an antimicrobial against a specific bacterial strain, guiding appropriate antibiotic selection.

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